If a religion preaches discrimination against another? Would not supporting freedom of religion, in this case, be then a force for discrimination? While many people may not recognize this -- or wish to recognize this -- this was also a real concern when the concept of freedom of religion first arose in force. Is a religious practice inherently discriminatory or is this possible discrimination simply a side-result of the action, essentially undertaken for other reasons? The fact is that rights of individuals often invariably collide.